> This is tied to the idea that efficiency increases provided by globalization are always a plus. Inequality may have deepened, but the argument is that that is irrelevant if the lowest standard of living rises.
I have to wonder that even if this is true, whether that means it's true for all conditions. That is, the cost of inequality may at some point equal, then surpass the cost of poverty, either from poverty decreasing or inequality increasing. That could either be a gradual change, or a fairly abrupt one, as people that have amassed massive wealth and power make use of it to change the system to their benefit (and would most people recognize this until it was long done?).
I have to wonder that even if this is true, whether that means it's true for all conditions. That is, the cost of inequality may at some point equal, then surpass the cost of poverty, either from poverty decreasing or inequality increasing. That could either be a gradual change, or a fairly abrupt one, as people that have amassed massive wealth and power make use of it to change the system to their benefit (and would most people recognize this until it was long done?).